I don't think so.
This is the conclusion I've been coming to for a while, anyway, and I am ready to publicly throw in my lot with the rest of those who fall into the camp variously called "conditionalism" or "annihilationism" or "conditional immortality." If you don't know or care about these big words, what I am basically saying (and not saying) is this: while I do believe that hell is (or will be) a reality, and while I do believe that those who reject God's offer of forgiveness and new life will receive a "punishment" of some sort, and while I do believe that this experience will be quite unpleasant,
I do not believe it will last forever. Others within "evangelicalism" have come to hold this view, not least John Stott (a very influential and remarkable teacher, writer, theologian, and pastor). I've been flirting with it for a while, based on some studies I did for a class during my last quarter at seminary. Anyhow, I have been convinced enough to declare this publicly. I am not beyond changing my mind, but this is where I currently stand, and I'm about to tell you some of the reasons why.
I have been participating in a discussion about hell
here, and during that conversation I was asked to present some of my thoughts about hell. So I did. I am here reprinting what I said there. (Some of my early comments refer to previous comments made in that conversation; if you want to see them, click
here.
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Dave,
First let me say I love what you said about wanting a "lesser punishment" to be true. I get very nervous when people very clearly want the opposite, namely, for sinners to burn forever or something. What angers me more is when they blame these feelings on some idea of God's justice needing to be done. I can't help but think of all sorts of unhealthy and ungodly things behind this line of thinking, but I won't get into it now. (For the record, I'm not alluding to anyone in this discussion; I'm just talking about people I've known in the past.) I will say that they need to some serious homework on what the justice of God meant in Scripture (particularly Paul) and what we often mean by it now. This is one of many cases where our own world clouds our ability to read Scripture rightly. The most frustrating thing in the world is arguing with someone using biblical words to refer to something other than what they mean in the Bible.
This, as you point out, has been done with the language of "hell" and "judgment." I wish I had the time and ability to fulfill your request; I hope to in the future (on both accounts) but am currently just in the beginning stages of thinking through some of these things. I know he's a bad guy in many circles, but Brian McLaren's
The Last Word and the Word After That helps raise some of these questions and offers a few clues, though it doesn't offer much by way of an answer. I'm also currently reading N.T. Wright's new book
Surprised By Hope and eagerly anticipating the chapter on hell. I think much study needs to be done in (a) Jesus' use of hell language in his historical context; (b) the full concept of God bringing his justice to bear on the world, and (c) the way history has influenced not only our view of hell in general, but our reading of particular texts that bolster our view of hell.
But unfortunately, once again, I am only in the stage of wanting to study these things. I can offer something else though. I have done a bit of reading about the whole annihilation question, and here are what I regard as four key arguments for this position (in very compact form):
1. The fact that the traditional phrase "eternal destruction" can just as easily refer to the permanent
result of destruction as the permanent ongoing
experience of destruction. This is not a question of taking these words literally or figuratively. It is a question of how these words interpret each other. Eternal of course means forever (though it is perhaps more complex than that, but we'll keep it simple). So whatever we're talking about, it's permanent. This, however, raises the question of what "destruction" means. My dictionary defines the English word as "the action of process of causing so much damage to something that it no longer exists or cannot be repaired" (I realize of course that the word is Greek but the meaning is basically the same; BDAG defines
apoleia as "the destruction that one causes or experiences, ruin, annihilation"). Implicit within the meaning of destruction is the concept of annihilation. The question of course is how "eternal" modifies "destruction." On the one hand, does it extend the process of destruction and thus refer to an ongoing experience that never ends? In this case annihilation would not enter into the equation. Or, on the other hand, does eternal refer to the result of the destruction? In this case "destroy" is allowed its more normal meaning of "to put an end to something by damaging or attacking it." Either meaning is possible, and my point is not to conclusively argue for the second, but rather to point out the insufficiency of the argument: "The Bible says the wicked's destruction will be
eternal, does it not? How can you be faithful to the Bible and believe in annihilation?" This question, on its own, simply will not do (though it is a question I can see fitting very well on the lips of our interviewer!). As someone else once put it, "Scripture certainly teaches that the wicked are punished eternally, but it does not teach that the wicked
endure eternal punishment. The wicked suffer 'eternal punishment' (Matt 25.46), 'eternal judgment' (Heb 6.2), and 'eternal destruction' (2 Thess 1.9) the same way that the elect experience 'eternal redemption' (Heb 5.9; 9.12). The elect do not undergo an eternal process of redemption. Their redemption is eternal in the sense that once the elect are redeemed, it is forever. So, too, the damned do not undergo an eternal process of punishment or destruction. But once they are punished and destroyed, it is forever. Hell is eternal in consequence, not duration." (Boyd and Eddy,
Across the Spectrum, 259-260)
2. Most (if not all) of the NT teachings about hell are allusions to OT teachings or events where people actually
died (as in, were no longer around). For instance, if it is true that both Noah's flood and Sodom and Gomorrah's fate prefigure the final experience of those who reject God - as Peter teaches in 2 Peter 2.4-10 - then it would make sense to affirm that these people, like those in the ancient stories, will actually die (not just continually experience death, but die). (For many more examples of this pattern, see E. W. Fudge's portions of the book
Two Views of Hell).
I want to point out one more example, which was extremely important for my own theological pilgrimage concerning these matters. The most difficult verses for annihilationists to explain are Revelation 14.10-11 and 20.10: "[Those who worship the beast], too, will drink the wine of God's fury, which has been poured full strength into the cup of his wrath. They will be tormented with burning sulfur in the presence of the holy angels and of the Lamb. And the smoke of their torment will rise for ever and ever. There will be no rest day or night for those who worship the beast and its image, or for anyone who receives the mark of its name." "And the devil, who deceived them, was thrown into the lake of burning sulfur, where the beast and the false prophet had been thrown. they will be tormented day and night for ever and ever." I want to say a few things about these passages. If taken strictly literally, the first one does not teach that rebellious human beings will be tormented for ever and ever. It teaches not that "their torment" but "
the smoke of their torment will rise for ever and ever." There is a very real difference here. The second, however, specifically says their torment will rise forever and ever (and since I take the beast and false prophet to refer to collections of individuals I cannot simply say that the devil and demons will suffer forever while humans will not). There are, however, two other important exegetical factors that we need to keep in mind. First, the phrase translated "for ever and ever" can be literally translated "for ages upon ages," which would refer to an indefinite but not necessarily unending period of time. (For other instances where similar phrases do not literally mean forever, see the more literal translations of Gen 49.26; Exod 40.15; Num 25.13.) Second, and this is the most important factor, these texts allude to Isaiah 34.9-10, which describes the fate of Edom: "Edom's streams will be turned into pitch, her dust into burning sulfur; her land will become blazing pitch! It will not be quenched night or day; its smoke will rise forever. From generation to generation it will lie desolate; no one will ever pass through it again." I trust that the parallels are clear enough, but their significance may need to be made explicit. Strictly speaking, it is simply not true that the smoke of Edom's fate will rise
forever, or that no one will ever pass through that land again. I know people who have been there. It seems that this type of language is used in reference to a temporally limited situation of actual destruction (in the sense of "annihilation"). The strong language communicates the import of the events in question. This leads me to affirm the same interpretive possibilities (if not probabilities) for the text in Revelation. It was actually this observation (which I did not make on my own, by the way), that has pushed me to come out of the theological closet and affirm that if pushed into a corner, I am an "annihilationist." (I've actually never stated that before, so you are the first to hear it. Be gentle! :) ).
3. Immortality is not an inherent quality of humanity. The idea of "immortality of the soul" is Platonic, not Scriptural. The Bible clearly teaches that only God is immortal (1 Tim 6.16) and that he shares his immortality ("gift of life") with those he chooses. And Scripture consistently teaches that God gives this gift of life to those who line up with his will (see Jn 3.15-16; 10.28; 17.2; Rom 2.7; 6.23; 1 Cor 15.53-54; Ga; 6/8; 1 Jn 5.11). Much thinking and speaking about hell assumes that the human "soul" will live forever without questioning the philosophical basis of this claim. As a result, we usually don't even think to entertain the possibility of extinction for those who have been cut off from God's presence. Almost everyone in the discussion agrees that hell is, more than anything else, a place where God is not. But, according to biblical logic, if God is not there, life is not there either. I put this argument third because it isn't as watertight or as central as the others. For example, one could argue that God can keep people alive to punish them if God wants to. But it still needs to be mentioned.
4. Another argument that I think needs to be kept in mind has to do with the character of God. Is it consistent with God's character as revealed in Scripture to torture people in hell forever? Please know that I am not simply saying that we should affirm his "love" over against his "justice." Both of these words need to be carefully defined if they are to speak faithfully of the God revealed in Scripture. Let me just briefly mention a few points in this regard. First, in Scripture God's justice refers not simply (or even primarily, or perhaps at all) to his inability
not to punish sin in a way that matches sin's severity. (This whole line of thinking doesn't
seemScriptural to me, though I know it does to many.) God's justice is more about his faithfulness to what he has promised. For Paul this has much to do with the role of Israel and God's faithfulness to her. For all of them this has to do with God's promises to make the world come out right. This does mean that evil will be "judged" (in the popular sense) and eliminated from God's new creation. It means more than that, but it definitely doesn't mean less. Second, while God certainly punishes people for their sin, his punishment always eventually gives way to mercy. See Psalm 103.8-14 for a poeticized affirmation of this consistent biblical teaching. I think God will ultimately display his mercy (as well as his wrath) by allowing those who refuse to accept his love to no longer exist. (Keep in mind the severity of no longer existing, by the way; it is the ultimate stamp of "failure" upon our lives.)
There are other arguments for this position, and of course many against it, but I'll rest the case for now and let you guys mull over all of this. I am by no means eternally convinced of this position, but for now I can honestly say I think it best represents what we can know about these things given what has been revealed to us.
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So . . . tell me honestly, what do you think? Am I crazy, heretical, right, wrong, stupid, confusing? Are there passages or points I'm not taking into account? I'd love to hear your thoughts.